MARY EVER VIRGIN
-
-
Fifth Member
Contact:
PM
Member since 07/20/2012
Location: Namibia
Some posters here deny that Mary is Ever Virgin. They allege she had other children ... and they also lean on the word "Till".
Now, who are Mary's other children? And does the word "Till" always mean that something that did not happen up to that point, later happened?
Please keep on topic.
-
-
- -1209reputation
- 6713 Posts
Member since 03/06/2010
Location: United Kingdom
quote:
Originally posted by Kamati
Some posters here deny that Mary is Ever Virgin. They allege she had other children ... and they also lean on the word "Till".
Now, who are Mary's other children? And does the word "Till" always mean that something that did not happen up to that point, later happened?
Please keep on topic.
For the Biblical truth, See my post about the topic.
I have given you Biblical and Greet proof that Mary had other children.
For the truth about, "Till", See below.
[A] The Greek meaning for, "Till", is, Until.
This is how it reads in the Greek.
"Joseph didn't have a sexual relationship with Mary Until after Jesus was born".."..Meaning He did after the birth of Jesus.
I have shown you this,
SO stop trying to twist the truth,YOU WICKED HELLBOUND MAN.
-
-
Fifth Member
Contact:
PM
Member since 07/25/2012
Location: USA
"Until" or "till" in the Scriptures means only that some action did not happen up to a certain point; it does not imply that it happened later. Karl Keating mentions two examples of this. 2 Samuel 6:23 "Michal the daughter of Saul, had no children until the day of her death." Could she have had children after her death? 1 Maccabees 5:54 "And they went up to mount Sion with joy and gladness, and offered holocausts, because not one of them was slain till they had returned in peace" How likely is it that these soldiers were slain after they had returned from battle?
-
-
Contact:
PM
Member since 11/17/2007
Location: Canada
Quite right. It does not matter how you write it in English or how you want to interpret the English. The Greek word does not change and it only speaks to the period leading up to an event, not whatever may or may not happen after, unless the sentence specifically states that something will happen after such time.
Otherwise, the Bible would be filled with a lot of very silly statements - do you honestly think that Paul meant that Timothy would not have to give attendence to reading, to exhortation, to doctrine, after Paul arrived?
The point of that passage in Matthew was not that Joseph and Mary would have carnal relations, but that Jesus would be born of a virgin.
Pax et Bonum,
Faith_at_Large
"There are some in the Church, who not only do not do what is good, but even persecute it, and hate in others what they neglect to do themselves. The sin of these men is not that of infirmity or ignorance, but deliberate willful sin." — Pope St. Gregory the Great (AD 540-604)
-
-
Fifth Member
Contact:
PM
Member since 07/20/2012
Location: Namibia
quote:
Originally posted by God4me
For the Biblical truth, See my post about the topic.
I have given you Biblical and Greet proof that Mary had other children.
I do not see any “Biblical and Greek proof” that Mary had other children. The Bible talks about Jesus’ brothers and sisters, but it does nowhere say they were Mary’s children. They have a different mother. That is just a matter of you reading the Bible and not believing it, believing instead what your pastor tells you.
quote:
Originally posted by God4me
For the truth about, "Till", See below.
[A] The Greek meaning for, "Till", is, Until.
This is how it reads in the Greek.
"Joseph didn't have a sexual relationship with Mary Until after Jesus was born".."..Meaning He did after the birth of Jesus.
I have shown you this,
SO stop trying to twist the truth,YOU WICKED HELLBOUND MAN.
God4me, you are confused as always. The writer was making a point, and that is exactly the point you are missing, namely that Joseph is not Jesus’ father. "And he [Joseph] did not know her until she brought forth her firstborn” ... MEANING, she was still a virgin and Joseph is not Jesus’ father like many were claiming.
That is the point the author was making, but anti-Catholics miss that very important point by rather speculating about what happened afterward.
The author was not concerned with what happened afterwards.
Now, when you force the word “till” to mean that Joseph and Mary afterward did have sexual relations, then you have to interpret that same word the same way in 2 Samuel 6:23, “Michal the daughter of Saul had no children TILL the day of her death”. Now, go ahead and claim that she did have children afterward.
But I know you will not do that. You will rather dance around the word and appoint yourself as the Greek expert who determines when “Till” means that something happened afterward and when “Till” does not means that something happened afterward.
But the more you dance like that, the more we enjoy the entertainment.
-
-
- -1209reputation
- 6713 Posts
Member since 03/06/2010
Location: United Kingdom
quote:
Originally posted by heavenlysecrets
"Until" or "till" in the Scriptures means only that some action did not happen up to a certain point; it does not imply that it happened later. Karl Keating mentions two examples of this. 2 Samuel 6:23 "Michal the daughter of Saul, had no children until the day of her death." Could she have had children after her death? 1 Maccabees 5:54 "And they went up to mount Sion with joy and gladness, and offered holocausts, because not one of them was slain till they had returned in peace" How likely is it that these soldiers were slain after they had returned from battle?
Stop twisting the scriptures and the truth, YOU NAUGHTY MAN.
Read theis.
The Greek meaning for, "Till", is, Until.
This is how it reads in the Greek.
"Joseph didn't have a sexual relationship with Mary Until after Jesus was born".."..Meaning He did after the birth of Jesus.
Here is scriptural and the original Greek proof that Mary had other children.Scriptural and Greek proof that Mary wasn't always a virgin and she had other children.
1)The Greek word for Brethren, Is "Adelphos", It can mean,
[A] Brothers of the same womb.
[B] Spiritual brothers.
[C] Near-Kinsman.
It can means Spiritual brethren or kinsman, But only in it's right context.
Just like the word, "Save", It doesn't just mean salvation from sin.
It means, among others,
SAVED FROM SIN, Matt 1: 21.
SAVED FROM THE SEA, Matt 14: 30.
HEALED, Lk 18: 42.
And you have to put it in it's right context.
The context of Brethren, As in, "Kinsman", Lk 2: 44.
The context as "Spiritual brethren". 1 Cor 14: 26.
2)Biblical proof That Mary had other children.
The Greek word for "Brethren" is Adelphos"
Matt 13: 55. Mk 6: 3. Jn 7: 3-5. Acts 1: 13--14. 1 Cor 9: 5.
In this context it means, I Quote,
"Brothers of the same womb as Jesus".
3)The Greeek word for, "Cousin", Is, [Sungenis]
And Kinsfolk is,[Sungenes].
Lk 1: 36,& v58. Lk 2: 44. Lk 21: 16.
PLEASE NOTE. How,
Lk 21: 16. Jn 7: 3-5. Acts 1: 13--14. & 1 Cor 9: 5. Puts the difference between Jesus's brothers and the other kinsmen and the other Disciples.
4)If Jesus's brothers in Matt 13: 55. Mk 6: 3. meant Cousin or kinfolk, The Greek word would be, "Sungenis, Or Sungenes".
And it would read like this,
"Is this not Mary His mother, and His Sungenes, Sungenis, James, Joses, Simon and Judas".
But it reads like this.
"Is this not Mary His mother, and His Adelphos, James, Joses, Simon and Judas".
You have to put the right meaning to the right Scriptures.
5)Sisters. "Adelphe"
Spiritual sisters, Matt 12: 50. Rom 16: 1.
Family sisters of the same mother, Matt 13: 56. Matt 19: 29.
NOTE, The Sisters in Matt 13: 56, Are Jesus's sisters and their mother is Mary.
6)Mary lost her virginity.
As we have seen Mary had other children.
And Matt 1: 25 proves she had a normal marital relationship with Joseph.
Matt 1: 25.
Joseph knew her not till she brought forth her first born".
[A] The Greek meaning for, "Till", is, Until.
This is how it reads in the Greek.
"Joseph didn't have a sexual relationship with Mary Until after Jesus was born"..Meaning He did after the birth of Jesus.
[B]NOTE The word, "Firstborn".. Not only born.
The meaning for "Firstborn" is self explaining.
The Greek word for firstborn is, "Prototokos" It's meaning is made up of, "Protos", First, And, "Tikto" to be born.
If Jesus was Mary’s only born, The Greek word would be, “Monogenes” Mono, Only, Geno, Born
So it would read like this.
“Until she brought forth her [mongenes] son”.
But it reads like this.
“Until she brought forth her [Prototokos] son”.
So, Not only does the Bible say Jesus was Mary's firstborn, But the Greek says He was, And proves that Mary had other children.
Prototokos is always used in the new testament as, FIRST among others.
For instance,
Rom 8: 29, Says Jesus is the firstborn among many brethren, He was the first, And Born again Christians are the people who are just like Jesus. Jn 17: 20--23.
Col 1 : 18, Says Jesus was the first to be born again, He was the first, And born again Christians are the rest.
NOTE, Matt 1: 25, says,
Mary brought forth HER firstborn. ..Not only born.
So, If the Bible and the original Greek meanings won't convince you, Nothing will.
6)Mary lost her virginity.
As we have seen Mary had other children.
And Matt 1: 25 proves she had a normal marital relationship with Joseph.
Matt 1: 25.
Joseph knew her not till she brought forth her first born".
[A] The Greek meaning for, "Till", is, Until.
This is how it reads in the Greek.
"Joseph didn't have a sexual relationship with Mary Until after Jesus was born"..Meaning He did after the birth of Jesus.
[B]NOTE The word, "Firstborn".. Not only born.
The meaning for "Firstborn" is self explaining.
The Greek word for firstborn is, "Prototokos" It's meaning is made up of, "Protos", First, And, "Tikto" to be born.
If Jesus was Mary’s only born, The Greek word would be, “Monogenes” Mono, Only, Geno, Born
So it would read like this.
“Until she brought forth her [mongenes] son”.
But it reads like this.
“Until she brought forth her [Prototokos] son”.
So, Not only does the Bible say Jesus was Mary's firstborn, But the Greek says He was, And proves that Mary had other children.
Prototokos is always used in the new testament as, FIRST among others.
For instance,
Rom 8: 29, Says Jesus is the firstborn among many brethren, He was the first, And Born again Christians are the people who are just like Jesus. Jn 17: 20--23.
Col 1 : 18, Says Jesus was the first to be born again, He was the first, And born again Christians are the rest.
NOTE, Matt 1: 25, says,
Mary brought forth HER firstborn. ..Not only born.
So, If the Bible and the original Greek meanings won't convince you, Nothing will.
Why do you catholics always agrue with God, Why do you always say your right and God is wrong??.
-
-
- -1209reputation
- 6713 Posts
Member since 03/06/2010
Location: United Kingdom
quote:
Originally posted by heavenlysecrets
"Until" or "till" in the Scriptures means only that some action did not happen up to a certain point; it does not imply that it happened later. Karl Keating mentions two examples of this. 2 Samuel 6:23 "Michal the daughter of Saul, had no children until the day of her death." Could she have had children after her death? 1 Maccabees 5:54 "And they went up to mount Sion with joy and gladness, and offered holocausts, because not one of them was slain till they had returned in peace" How likely is it that these soldiers were slain after they had returned from battle?
[1]2 Samuel is in the Old Testament.
[2]Maccabees isn't in the Bible, It isn't inspired by God.
[3]Mat 1: 25, In the Bible and the original Greek text, Means Mary and Joseph had sexual relations after Jesus was born.
What you are saying is just pure speculatuion, And twisting the Bible.
-
-
- -1209reputation
- 6713 Posts
Member since 03/06/2010
Location: United Kingdom
quote:
Originally posted by Faith_at_Large
Quite right. It does not matter how you write it in English or how you want to interpret the English. The Greek word does not change and it only speaks to the period leading up to an event, not whatever may or may not happen after, unless the sentence specifically states that something will happen after such time.
Otherwise, the Bible would be filled with a lot of very silly statements - do you honestly think that Paul meant that Timothy would not have to give attendence to reading, to exhortation, to doctrine, after Paul arrived?
The point of that passage in Matthew was not that Joseph and Mary would have carnal relations, but that Jesus would be born of a virgin.
Stop twisting the truth, YOU WICKED HELLBOUND WOMAN.
I have shown you that Mary had other children, I have proved it from the Bible and the original Greek texts.
All you do is speculate.
Yu said.
[Quote]
The point of that passage in Matthew was not that Joseph and Mary would have carnal relations, but that Jesus would be born of a virgin.
[End quote]
That is a catholic lie told by an evil catholic.
The poing of Matt 1: 25 is, Joseph and Mary had sexual relations after Jesus was born.
-
-
Contact:
PM
Member since 11/17/2007
Location: Canada
It does not matter if 2 Samuel is in the OT, the OT was translated into Greek and the word is the same word as used in the NT, so are you saying that the meaning of that word changed when the first century Christians were reading from the Sepuagint to when they were listening to the Gospel?
Do any other Greek words change their meaning when used in the OT verses the NT? And do they change from book to book in the NT? Your Greek is very confusing - it changes from testament to testament and from author to author, otherwise Timothy would not be encouraged to read the scriptures or pay attention to doctrine after Paul arrived.
Pax et Bonum,
Faith_at_Large
"There are some in the Church, who not only do not do what is good, but even persecute it, and hate in others what they neglect to do themselves. The sin of these men is not that of infirmity or ignorance, but deliberate willful sin." — Pope St. Gregory the Great (AD 540-604)
-
-
- -1209reputation
- 6713 Posts
Member since 03/06/2010
Location: United Kingdom
quote:
Originally posted by Kamati
quote:
Originally posted by God4me
For the Biblical truth, See my post about the topic.
I have given you Biblical and Greet proof that Mary had other children.
I do not see any “Biblical and Greek proof” that Mary had other children. The Bible talks about Jesus’ brothers and sisters, but it does nowhere say they were Mary’s children. They have a different mother. That is just a matter of you reading the Bible and not believing it, believing instead what your pastor tells you.
quote:
Originally posted by God4me
For the truth about, "Till", See below.
[A] The Greek meaning for, "Till", is, Until.
This is how it reads in the Greek.
"Joseph didn't have a sexual relationship with Mary Until after Jesus was born".."..Meaning He did after the birth of Jesus.
I have shown you this,
SO stop trying to twist the truth,YOU WICKED HELLBOUND MAN.
God4me, you are confused as always. The writer was making a point, and that is exactly the point you are missing, namely that Joseph is not Jesus’ father. "And he [Joseph] did not know her until she brought forth her firstborn” ... MEANING, she was still a virgin and Joseph is not Jesus’ father like many were claiming.
That is the point the author was making, but anti-Catholics miss that very important point by rather speculating about what happened afterward.
The author was not concerned with what happened afterwards.
Now, when you force the word “till” to mean that Joseph and Mary afterward did have sexual relations, then you have to interpret that same word the same way in 2 Samuel 6:23, “Michal the daughter of Saul had no children TILL the day of her death”. Now, go ahead and claim that she did have children afterward.
But I know you will not do that. You will rather dance around the word and appoint yourself as the Greek expert who determines when “Till” means that something happened afterward and when “Till” does not means that something happened afterward.
But the more you dance like that, the more we enjoy the entertainment.
Stop telling lies, YOU WICKED HELLBOUND MAN.
For the Biblical and the original Greek proof, Read theis again.
AND STOP ARGUEING WITH GOD..YOU EVIL MAN.
Here is scriptural and the original Greek proof that Mary had other children.Scriptural and Greek proof that Mary wasn't always a virgin and she had other children.
1)The Greek word for Brethren, Is "Adelphos", It can mean,
[A] Brothers of the same womb.
[B] Spiritual brothers.
[C] Near-Kinsman.
It can means Spiritual brethren or kinsman, But only in it's right context.
Just like the word, "Save", It doesn't just mean salvation from sin.
It means, among others,
SAVED FROM SIN, Matt 1: 21.
SAVED FROM THE SEA, Matt 14: 30.
HEALED, Lk 18: 42.
And you have to put it in it's right context.
The context of Brethren, As in, "Kinsman", Lk 2: 44.
The context as "Spiritual brethren". 1 Cor 14: 26.
2)Biblical proof That Mary had other children.
The Greek word for "Brethren" is Adelphos"
Matt 13: 55. Mk 6: 3. Jn 7: 3-5. Acts 1: 13--14. 1 Cor 9: 5.
In this context it means, I Quote,
"Brothers of the same womb as Jesus".
3)The Greeek word for, "Cousin", Is, [Sungenis]
And Kinsfolk is,[Sungenes].
Lk 1: 36,& v58. Lk 2: 44. Lk 21: 16.
PLEASE NOTE. How,
Lk 21: 16. Jn 7: 3-5. Acts 1: 13--14. & 1 Cor 9: 5. Puts the difference between Jesus's brothers and the other kinsmen and the other Disciples.
4)If Jesus's brothers in Matt 13: 55. Mk 6: 3. meant Cousin or kinfolk, The Greek word would be, "Sungenis, Or Sungenes".
And it would read like this,
"Is this not Mary His mother, and His Sungenes, Sungenis, James, Joses, Simon and Judas".
But it reads like this.
"Is this not Mary His mother, and His Adelphos, James, Joses, Simon and Judas".
You have to put the right meaning to the right Scriptures.
5)Sisters. "Adelphe"
Spiritual sisters, Matt 12: 50. Rom 16: 1.
Family sisters of the same mother, Matt 13: 56. Matt 19: 29.
NOTE, The Sisters in Matt 13: 56, Are Jesus's sisters and their mother is Mary.
6)Mary lost her virginity.
As we have seen Mary had other children.
And Matt 1: 25 proves she had a normal marital relationship with Joseph.
Matt 1: 25.
Joseph knew her not till she brought forth her first born".
[A] The Greek meaning for, "Till", is, Until.
This is how it reads in the Greek.
"Joseph didn't have a sexual relationship with Mary Until after Jesus was born"..Meaning He did after the birth of Jesus.
[B]NOTE The word, "Firstborn".. Not only born.
The meaning for "Firstborn" is self explaining.
The Greek word for firstborn is, "Prototokos" It's meaning is made up of, "Protos", First, And, "Tikto" to be born.
If Jesus was Mary’s only born, The Greek word would be, “Monogenes” Mono, Only, Geno, Born
So it would read like this.
“Until she brought forth her [mongenes] son”.
But it reads like this.
“Until she brought forth her [Prototokos] son”.
So, Not only does the Bible say Jesus was Mary's firstborn, But the Greek says He was, And proves that Mary had other children.
Prototokos is always used in the new testament as, FIRST among others.
For instance,
Rom 8: 29, Says Jesus is the firstborn among many brethren, He was the first, And Born again Christians are the people who are just like Jesus. Jn 17: 20--23.
Col 1 : 18, Says Jesus was the first to be born again, He was the first, And born again Christians are the rest.
NOTE, Matt 1: 25, says,
Mary brought forth HER firstborn. ..Not only born.
So, If the Bible and the original Greek meanings won't convince you, Nothing will.
6)Mary lost her virginity.
As we have seen Mary had other children.
And Matt 1: 25 proves she had a normal marital relationship with Joseph.
Matt 1: 25.
Joseph knew her not till she brought forth her first born".
[A] The Greek meaning for, "Till", is, Until.
This is how it reads in the Greek.
"Joseph didn't have a sexual relationship with Mary Until after Jesus was born"..Meaning He did after the birth of Jesus.
[B]NOTE The word, "Firstborn".. Not only born.
The meaning for "Firstborn" is self explaining.
The Greek word for firstborn is, "Prototokos" It's meaning is made up of, "Protos", First, And, "Tikto" to be born.
If Jesus was Mary’s only born, The Greek word would be, “Monogenes” Mono, Only, Geno, Born
So it would read like this.
“Until she brought forth her [mongenes] son”.
But it reads like this.
“Until she brought forth her [Prototokos] son”.
So, Not only does the Bible say Jesus was Mary's firstborn, But the Greek says He was, And proves that Mary had other children.
Prototokos is always used in the new testament as, FIRST among others.
For instance,
Rom 8: 29, Says Jesus is the firstborn among many brethren, He was the first, And Born again Christians are the people who are just like Jesus. Jn 17: 20--23.
Col 1 : 18, Says Jesus was the first to be born again, He was the first, And born again Christians are the rest.
NOTE, Matt 1: 25, says,
Mary brought forth HER firstborn. ..Not only born.
So, If the Bible and the original Greek meanings won't convince you, Nothing will.
Why do you catholics always agrue with God, Why do you always say your right and God is wrong??.
-
-
Contact:
PM
Member since 11/17/2007
Location: Canada
quote:
Originally posted by God4me
quote:
Originally posted by Faith_at_Large
Quite right. It does not matter how you write it in English or how you want to interpret the English. The Greek word does not change and it only speaks to the period leading up to an event, not whatever may or may not happen after, unless the sentence specifically states that something will happen after such time.
Otherwise, the Bible would be filled with a lot of very silly statements - do you honestly think that Paul meant that Timothy would not have to give attendence to reading, to exhortation, to doctrine, after Paul arrived?
The point of that passage in Matthew was not that Joseph and Mary would have carnal relations, but that Jesus would be born of a virgin.
Stop twisting the truth, YOU WICKED HELLBOUND WOMAN.
I have shown you that Mary had other children, I have proved it from the Bible and the original Greek texts.
All you do is speculate.
Yu said.
[Quote]
The point of that passage in Matthew was not that Joseph and Mary would have carnal relations, but that Jesus would be born of a virgin.
[End quote]
That is a catholic lie told by an evil catholic.
The poing of Matt 1: 25 is, Joseph and Mary had sexual relations after Jesus was born.
Seriously??
Are you so carnally minded that the virgin birth is irrelevent to you?
You honestly believe that the point of Matthew 1:25 was that Joseph got his rocks off? THAT is more important to you than Jesus being born of a virgin in fulfillment of the prophecies?
Are you really that thick???
What?
Mary had GOD in her womb for nine months, put there by the Holy Spirit, and you honestly believe that the first thing Joseph is going to do is follow the Holy Spirit into Hallowed ground? To enter in where his LORD came out?
FYI, Joseph was a devout Jew not some horny televangelist.
Pax et Bonum,
Faith_at_Large
"There are some in the Church, who not only do not do what is good, but even persecute it, and hate in others what they neglect to do themselves. The sin of these men is not that of infirmity or ignorance, but deliberate willful sin." — Pope St. Gregory the Great (AD 540-604)
-
-
Fifth Member
Contact:
PM
Member since 07/20/2012
Location: Namibia
quote:
Originally posted by God4me
[1]2 Samuel is in the Old Testament.
Aha, now the word “till” depends of whether the book is in the Old or in the New Testament; it no longer depends of Greek. That is the spectacular dancing around words that I expected from God4me.
[2]Maccabees isn't in the Bible, It isn't inspired by God.[/quote]
Your pastor told you so, but that jeopardizes your case ... but I will leave at that for now, because it would take us out of topic.
[3]Mat 1: 25, In the Bible and the original Greek text, Means Mary and Joseph had sexual relations after Jesus was born.[/quote]
That is what you want it to mean, but that is not what the author was concerned with. The author was proving virgin birth; that Joseph was not Jesus’ father. The author was not concerned with what happened afterward.
-
-
Fifth Member
Contact:
PM
Member since 07/25/2012
Location: USA
This gate will stay SHUT and will never be opened! No human being is allowed to use it, because I, THE LORD GOD OF ISRAEL, have entered through it. IT IS TO REMAIN SHUT!!! Ezekiel 44:2
Edited by heavenlysecrets on 08/14/2012 10:33:57
-
-
Fifth Member
Contact:
PM
Member since 07/20/2012
Location: Namibia
quote:
Originally posted by God4me
2)Biblical proof That Mary had other children.
The Greek word for "Brethren" is Adelphos"
Matt 13: 55. Mk 6: 3. Jn 7: 3-5. Acts 1: 13--14. 1 Cor 9: 5.
[quote]Originally posted by God4me
4)If Jesus's brothers in Matt 13: 55. Mk 6: 3. meant Cousin or kinfolk, The Greek word would be, "Sungenis, Or Sungenes".
And it would read like this,
"Is this not Mary His mother, and His Sungenes, Sungenis, James, Joses, Simon and Judas".
But it reads like this.
"Is this not Mary His mother, and His Adelphos, James, Joses, Simon and Judas".
Have you noticed that the mother of Jesus’ brothers is another Mary, the wife of Clopas who was the sister of Jesus’ mother (John 19:25)? Another clue for those with eyes to see: How can Mary have a sister who is also named Mary and then both have children with similar names?
But no, God4me has stopped thinking for himself a long time ago and is now exclusively parroting what his deceiving pastor told him.
-
-
Fifth Member
Contact:
PM
Member since 07/20/2012
Location: Namibia
quote:
Originally posted by God4me
NOTE, The Sisters in Matt 13: 56, Are Jesus's sisters and their mother is Mary.
Yes, their mother is Mary, the wife of Clopas and sister of Jesus' mother.
quote:
Originally posted by God4me
[A] The Greek meaning for, "Till", is, Until.
This is how it reads in the Greek.
"Joseph didn't have a sexual relationship with Mary Until after Jesus was born"..Meaning He did after the birth of Jesus.
No, that is not what it means. It means that Joseph is not Jesus’ father because he did not know Mary before Jesus was born. What happened afterward was of no concern to Matthew.
[B]NOTE The word, "Firstborn".. Not only born.
The meaning for "Firstborn" is self explaining.[/quote]
Yes, it is self explanaining in that the firstborn is firstborn regardless of whether there was a second child, but according to God4me’s strange reasoning, a firstborn becomes a firstborn ONLY AFTER a second child was born.
-
-
Fifth Member
Contact:
PM
Member since 07/20/2012
Location: Namibia
quote:
Originally posted by heavenlysecrets
This gate will stay SHUT and will never be opened! No human being is allowed to use it, because I, THE LORD GOD OF ISRAEL, have entered through it. It is to remain SHUT!!! Ezekiel 44:2
That Bible text remains "meaningless" to people like God4me unless they can twist it to mean something totally different.
|
|
Subscribe by Email
RSS