While Jesus was dying on the cross, he cried out: "My God, my God, why have you foresaken me?" (Matt 27:46)

Throughout the ages, Christians have provided how the atonement worked, how Jesus died for our sins, such as that either God withdrew from His Son or His Son was deprived of Beatific Vision or experience of His Father's love.

The other theory comes from the language that suggests that Jesus suffered for us.

The idea that God withdrew from Jesus or punished Jesus comes from Matt 27:46 (and the other Gospel writers).

But, it's not possible for the enjoinment of the beatific vision to be interrupted for someone who is God. It would be unjust of God.

The leading Catholic theory is that Jesus was not punished. Instead, he was offering his life to the Father as an offering of love. He was giving up his life and go through that experience for the sake of love. The Father accepts that as compensation for our sins because he's providing something of worth to the Father for us.

When examining Matt 27:46, a theory is that it could be an expression because it's also the first line of Psalm 22 (My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? Why art thou so far from helping me, from the words of my groaning?). The idea is that those under the cross would have understood what Jesus meant if he started the Psalm without having to say it all. The Psalm concludes that even though it looks like God might not be with us we learn he was always there.

View all: Christian Questions